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#1 2009-03-12 9:51 am
Can someone answer a confusing (to me) DNS question?
So, in order for me to explain properly, I need to set the stage.
I have a managed server that hosts my domain.com, and then I buy a dedicated server from them to host that domain. The records are the way they always were, but the A Name record got changed to my primary web host address.
In order to delegate DNS completely to the new server, I need to put in named entries - such as ns1.domain.com and ns2.domain.com - but I cannot get to those domains via DNS. If I do an nslookup/dig on ns1.domain.com it comes back as nonexistant.
So, do I have to change the A Name record to the ns1 ip address, wait for that change, so that it can resolve the ns1.domain.com fqdn at which point I can put in the ns1 and ns2 entries into the managed server so that it can route to my DNS server?
It's not difficult for me to get confused but this is truly getting me.
thanks in advance,
-Tim
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